1. A master is liable for the wrongs committed by his servants. It is called
a. Joint liability b. Vicarious liability c. Concurrent liability d. All the above

2. Self Defence
a. Is a private remedy b. Is a judicial remedy
c. Is available as defence only in civil law
d. Is available in booth torts and crimes

3. Slander is a __________
a. A crime b. A tort c. A breach of contract d. A breach of trust

4. Muslim marriage is a_________
a. Sacrament b. Civil Contract c. Divine commandment d. None of the above

5. Registration of marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is:
a. Compulsory b. Optional
c. Subject to the discretion of the marriage registrar d. None of the above

6. In Law of Torts, always unliquidated damages are awarded. The meaning of unliquidated is
a. Not ascertainable b. Approximately arrived at c. Penal & exemplary
d. Both (a) and above

7. The Law of Torts has largely developed through
a. Judicial decisions b. Customs c. Legislations d. None of the above

8. _________are words which appear innocent, but contain a latent meaning which is defamatory
a. Libel b. Slander c. Innuendoes d. None of the above

9. There are four stages in the commission of a crime; intention, preparation, attempt and commission. The attempt to commit a crime is
a. Punishable b. Not punishable
c. Not ordinary punishable d. None of the above

10. Sex determination test have been banned by
a. Pre-Conception Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act.
b. SDT (Prohibition) Act c. Ultra-South Contract Act d. None of the above

11. _________are those offences which are punishable with imprisonment for two years or less. These offences which can be compromised between the parties.
a. Compoundable offences b. Non-compoundable offences
c. Bailable offences d. Non-cognizable offences

12. Lawyers are officers of the Court and the constituted into an independent profession under the
a. Constitution of India b. Advocates Act, 1931
c. Advocates Act, 1951 d. Advocates Act, 1961

13. In the matter of liquidated damages
a. The plaintiff is entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation for the loss suffered
b. The plaintiff is not entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation for the loss suffered
c. The plaintiff is entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation by proving the exact loss suffered
d. The plaintiff is entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation without having to proving the exact loss suffered

14. A party who suffers loss as a result of breach of contract can, in the usual course, claim
a. Ordinary damages b. Exemplary damages
c. Special damages d. Penal damages

15. A person enjoying the benefit of non-gratuitous act
a. Is under an obligation make compensation for this benefit
b. May make compensation at his option
c. Has no obligation towards any one
d. Has no remedy available against him

16. An agreement to share the benefits of public office is
a. Valid b. Voidable c. Void d. None of the above

17. Exemplary damages is related to
a. Damages awarded to set an example
b. Damages for loss arising special circumstances
c. Damages fixed by the court in ordinary circumstance
d. None of the above

18. What is legal right?
a. Right recognized by law and capable of being enforced at law courts
b. Rights recognized by a religion
c. Both of the above d. None of the above

19. In an action for negligence, the plaintiff has to prove:
a. Existence of a duty b. Breach of duty by defendant
c. Legal because of breach d. All of the above

20. If a newspaper published a defamatory article written by ‘X’, who can be sued?
a. Publisher of that newspaper b. Printer of that newspaper
c. Mr. X only d. Mr. X, Printer Publisher and Editor

21. The minimum age for marriage is that the boy must be _______ and the girl _______
a. 18 years, 21 years b. 21 years, 18 years
c. 18 years, 18 years d. 21 years, 21 years

22. Mohd. Ahmed Khan. V. Shan Bano Bagum case is related to:
a. Muslim wife’s right to maintenance after divorce
b. Muslim wife’s right to divorce
c. Muslim wife’s right to separation
d. Muslim wife’s right to husband’s property

23. _______ is an which is twisted, crooked, which is not straight and lawful
a. Tort b. Crime c. Wrong d. None of the above

24. In criminal law intention is an essential constituent of offence. In Law of Torts
a. Intention is relevant b. Intention is irrelevant
c. Intention is relevant only in some torts d. None of the above

25. Defamation infringes a person’s right to
a. Reputation b. Pride c. Privilege d. Status

26. Conspiracy needs, at least ________ persons
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Five

27. Section ________ of the Indian Penal Code punishes a murderer
a. 299 b. 300 c. 301 d. 302

28. _______are those offences for which a police officer can arrest a person without a warrant
a. Cognizable offences b. Non-cognizable offences
c. Bailable offences d. Non-bailable offences

29. Past consideration means
a. Money received in the past without making even a proposal
b. The price which is more than the promisor’s expectation
c. The price said or service rendered at the desire or request of the promisor followed by a subsequent promise
d. None of the above

30. P offers to sell his car to Q for Rs. 50,000/- Q agrees to buy the car offering is Rs. 45,000/- the reply of Q amounts to
a. Offer b. Counter offer c. Invitation to an offer d. Standing offer

31. Which of the following constitutes an offer in a self-service store?
a. Display of goods at the shop window
b. When the customers asks for some goods
c. There is no offer in such cases
d. Picking up an article and approaching the cashier’s desk for payment

32. A party to a contract can be discharged for performing it, if it has become
a. Expensive b. Onerous c. Commercial inviable d. Impossible

33. A person who sues for damages under the law of contract
a. Is entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation for the less suffered
b. Is not entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation for the less suffered
c. Is entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation by proving the exact loss suffered
d. Is entitled to recover the agreed amount of compensation without having to prove the exact loss suffered

34. Unlawfully detaining or threatening to detain any property to the prejudice of any person making him to enter into an agreement amounts to
a. Mistake b. Coercion c. Undue influence d. Misappropriation

35. If the terms of the contract are not fulfilled, the law will endeavour so far as money can go, to place the aggrieved party
a. In a position more advantageous than that which would have arisen had the contract been performed
b. In the same position as if the contract has been performed
c. In the equal position as if the contract has not be performed
d. To status-quo

36. An agreement to share the benefits of public office is
a. Valid b. Voidable c. Void d. None of the above

37. A promise to give money or money’s worth upon the determination or ascertainment of an uncertain events is called a
a. Lottery b. Wager c. Debt d. Contract

38. Crime is a
a. Private wrong b. Public wrong c. Civil wrong d. State wrong

39. A a surgeon, in good faith communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies of shock
a. A commits murder b. A commits no offence
c. A commits abetment of murder d. A commits offence of shock

40. Conspiracy needs at least ________ persons
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Five

41. _________ is a general pardon
a. Remission b. Reprieve c. Amnesty d. Suspension

42. The act of unlawfully entering into another’s property
a. Breach of property b. Trespass c. Triplication d. Trover

43. A promise made without the intention of performing it amounts to
a. Innocent misrepresentation b. Fraud
c. Negligent misrepresentation d. Wrongful misrepresentation

44. A contingent contract is
a. Void b. Voidable c. Valid d. Illegal

45. Promises forming consideration for each other are known as
a. Independent promises b. Dependent promises
c. Reciprocal promises d. Mutual promises

46. Consideration must move at the desire of
a. The promisor b. The promise
c. Promisor or any third party d. Both promisor and the promise

47. A person who is not a party to a contract
a. Cannot sue b. can sue only in well recognised cases
c. can sue d. All the above

48. What does adjudication mean?
a. A decision given by an Umpire b. Mediation
c. Decision given by a Court d. None of the above

49. An insolvent person is
a. A notable to work b. Bankrupt
c. Financially unsound d. Infirm

Legal GK - CLAT

Legal GK – CLAT

50. One of the following cannot be taken as intellectual property
a. Patents b. Copyright c. Know-how d. Discovery

51. What is the legal name for the name and fame of a Trading Firm?
a. Goodwill b. fame c. image d. none of the above

52. Absconder in the eye of law means:
a. Run away from Home b. Run away after killing
c. Hide to evade the process of law d. Challenge the executive

53. Accomplice in legal term means
a. Partner in a crime b. Eye witness c. On looker d. Criminal mind

54. Countersign means:
a. Take signature b. Unauthentic signature
c. To add one’s signature to the document d. Attempt to suicide

55. Delinquent child is one who:
a. Has no parents b. No education
c. Has no legs d. Has committed an offences

56. Burden of proof means
a. Take allegation b. Contradictor
c. Prove an allegation d. Clean judgment

57. Hindu Marriage Act was passed in
a. 1950 b. 1952 c. 1955 d. 1959

58. Capacity in legal term means
a. Natural power b. Physical Power c. Moral power d. Legal power

59. Rule of Law a term in Indian constitution is taken from
a. U.K b. U.S.A c. Russia d. Ireland

60. Quid Pro Quo means
a. One for the other b. Illegal action c. Moral values d. Lawlessness

61. Immunity denotes
a. Freedom from infection b. From interference
c. From power of the state d. No control

62. Detention denotes
a. Confiscating goods b. Arrest c. Defects d. No freedom to move

63. Law:
a. Follows Human Behaviour b. Prescribes Rules
c. One Man’s property d. Institution for Parda Nashin Ladies

64. Waqf is a
a. Charitable institution b. Gift
c. One man’s property d. Institution for Parda Nashin Ladies

65. Untouchability (Offences) Act was passed in:
a. 1955 b. 1957 c. 1959 d. 1962

66. What is a moot court?
a. A basic point of law b. A basic fact of case
c. Mock court for practice by students
d. Another name for magistrate’s court

67. The early release of a prisoner is called
a. Bail b. Parole c. Lease d. Lien

68. LL.B. stands for
a. Bachelor of law b. Legalite Lawyers Baccile
c. Legum Baccalaureus d. None of the above

69. An Act of parliament is called
a. Bill b. Legislation c. Statute d. Public Policy

70. Husband and wife have a right to each other’s company. This right is called
a. Legal right b. Matrimonial c. Consortium right d. Conjugal right

71. Who propounded the doctrine Rule of Law?
a. Lord Blackstone b. Lord Dennig c. Dicey d. Maine

72. A person who takes proceedings against the accused on the behalf of the state
a. Judge b. Lawyer c. Proctor d. Prosecutor

73. What is a cognizance
a. Arousing judicial notice of knowledge b. It is
c. It means custody without warrant d. It means custody with warrant

74. A previous judgment cited by court to decide on a similar set of facts
a. Precedent b. Case c. Obiter dicta d. Judicial dicta

75. “ Law is not an intellectual legender”- made to make black appear white and white appear black, but it is ceaseless endeavour to enthrone justice” who said these words?
a. Jawaharlal Nehru b. M. K. Gandhi
c. Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes d. Lord Atkins

1. Consumer Protection Act, provides for a ________ tier quasi judicial mechanism for dealing with complaints.
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five

2. Martial Law is defined as that law administered by and through ________
a. Military authorities b. Administered by Chief Justice c. Dealing with marital conflicts d. Dealing with family matters

3. Criminal Procedure Code lays down _________
a. Procedure to be followed in investigation of crimes
b. Code to be followed in study of criminals
c. Procedure to be followed by criminals d. None of the above

4. Family law comprises of laws governing
a. Matrimonial relations b. Property matters
c. Family planning d. Matrimonial property

5. Law of Contracts deals with
a. Laws of ownership and transfer b. Property of actions
c. Enforcement of obligations arising from agreements and promises
d. Taxation

6. The law of torts deals with
a. Injuries to person or property caused by failure to take reasonable care
b. Money transactions c. Partnerships d. Industrial production

7. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 prohibits
a. Child labour in hazardous occupations and processes
b. Child labour in non-hazardous occupations
c. Child labour completely d. None of the above

8. The Parliament amended the Constitution in 1992 and introduced the Panchayati Raj and Nagar Palikas by the
a. 54th and 56th Amendments b. 45th and 46th Amendments
c. 89th and 90th Amendments d. 73th and 74th Amendments

9. The Supreme Court of India recognized sexual harassment as a human rights violation case of
a. Mohd. Ahmed Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum
b. Vishaka Vs. State of Rajasthan c. Tukaram Vs. State Of Maharastra
d. Sharad Birdhichand Sarda Vs. State of Maharashtra

10. The Supreme Court adopted the Mandal Commission recommendations on reservation for other Backward Classes in the cases of
a. S.R Bommai Vs. Union of India b. Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India
c. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India d. Unnikrishnan Vs. Union of India

11. A filed a suit for breach of contract against B. The District Court decided in B’s favour. B then appealed to the High Court. The legal terminology for B is appellant, while A would be called
a. Defendant b. Plaintiff c. Respondent d. Accused

12. A, B and C enter into an agreement to divide amongst themselves gains acquired by fraud or to be acquired by fraud in future. The agreement is
a. Lawful b. Unlawful c. Immoral d. Adequate

13. Which of the following names is not associated with the world of law:
a. H.L.A. Hart b. Roscoe Pound c. Upendra Baxi d. Ashish Nandy

14. Why do we obey laws?
a. Because of the inherent goodness of the law
b. Fear of punishment c. Sense of duty d. All of the above

15. The great Hindu Law-giver was
a. Kapil b. Banabhatta c. Kautilya d. Manu

16. Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India?
a. Vijnanesvara b. Hemadri c. Rajasekhara d. Jimutavahana

17. Patriarchy is an expression to include:
a. Father dominated household
b. Male dominance in the organization of society
c. A fundamental and universal unit of society
d. Biological links between father and child

18. The sources of international law are:
a. Treaties b. Customs c. General principles of law d. All of these

19. Muslim religious foundations are known as:
a. Ulema b. Jehad c. Quzat d. Wakfs

20. Who is known as the father of international law?
a. Bentham b. Grotius c. Oppenheim d. Lord Denning

21. When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence the burden of proof is on:
a. Court b. Police c. Victim’s family d. Prosecution

22. The law of torts has largely developed through:
a. Custom b. Judicial Decisions c. Legislations d. None of the above

23. Corporeal possession means possession of material things. Thus which of the following is not an example of incorporeal possession:
a. Copyright b. Trade mark c. Chattel d. Easement

24. The Shah Bano case related to
a. Muslim wife’s right to maintenance after divorce
b. Muslim wife’s right to divorce
c. Muslim wife’s right to separation
d. Muslim wife’s right to husband’s property

25. A written statement in the name of a person by whom it is voluntarily signed and sworn is called:
a. Power of attorney b. Affidavit c. Petition d. Affirmation

26. Law is an ass was said by
a. Marx b. Charles Dickens c. Franz Kafka d. Locke

27. The book concept of law was written by
a. Justice Krishna Iyer b. H.L.A. Hart c. Ronald Dworkin d. Henry Maine

28. Who among the following has authored a textbook on public international law:
a. Ian Brownile b. Upendra Baxi c. Soli Sorabjee d. Judge Nagendra Singh

29. The standard of proof in a criminal trial is:
a. Beyond Reasonable Doubt b. On balance of Probabilities
c. On balance of Possibilities d. None of the above

30. The Territorial Waters of India extend upto:
a. 24 Nautical Miles b. Nautical Miles
c. 18 Nautical Miles d. None of the above

31. Lex Fori means:
a. The law of the place b. The law of the court in which the case is tried
c. Law of the place where the contract is made d. None of the above

32. Delegated legislation is a term best matched with:
a. Administrative Law b. Constitutional law
c. Corporate law d. International law

33. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005 brought the following change in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
a. Property rights for women b. Right to women to make a will
c. Creation of a Hindu undivided family d. Registration of inherited land

34. Lok Adalats have been created under:
a. Arbitration and Conciliation Act b. Supreme Court of India
c. Legal Services Authority Act d. 73rd amendment of Constitution

35. Lawyers are constituted into an independent profession under:
a. Constitution of India b. Advocates Act, 1961
c. Advocates Act, 1951 d. Bar Council of India Rules

36. Who wrote the first book on the Constitution of India?
a. B.R. Ambedkar b. Durgadas c. H.M. Seervai d. Jawaharlal Nehru

37. The length of the territorial sea under the United Nations Law of the Sea Convention is:
a. 12 nautical miles b. 24 nautical miles
c. 200 nautical miles d. None of the above

38. The Mallimath Committee Report deals with
a. Reform of Criminal Justice Administration b. Reform of Stock Markets
c. Reviews of laws relating to divorce d. None of the above

39. What do you mean by means rea?
a. Criminal act b. Criminal intent
c. Action in self-defence d. Private complaint

40. What is a contract?
a. A written format containing offer and acceptance
b. An agreement
c. An agreement enforceable by law
d. An oral agreement not enforceable by law

41. The term sociological jurisprudence is associated with
a. Roscoe Pound b. Julius stone c. H.L.A. Hart d. Justice Krishna Iyer

42. Of the following documents which is a negotiable instrument?
a. Promissory note b. Bill of exchange c. Cheque d. All of the above

43. The Competition Act, 2000 deals with:
a. Abuse of dominant position b. Foreign Exchange
c. Administration of all sport excluding cricket d. None of the above

44. The Right to Information Act, 2005 deals with:
a. Right to information and obligations of public authorities
b. Central Information Commission
c. State Information Commissions d. All of the above

2 Response Comments

  • MitaliApril 1, 2017 at 5:35 am

    Where are the answers of the above questions??

  • Divya SinghalSeptember 8, 2017 at 5:06 am

    Where r the answers of above questions…?


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